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Why should Aristotle’s cultivation of virtue lead naturally to participation in politics?

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The question is: Why should the cultivation of virtue lead naturally to participation in politics? What does Aristotle mean by saying that man is a political animal and in what sense does politics for Aristotle, itself partake in virtue? Does this insight have application to modern politics? If not, why not, and if so, how?  Please refer to Aristotle’s two texts, Nichomachean Ethics and The Politics, along with MacIntyre’s reading included.

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Phyllis Mugure

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